#2447 Sorted

Thanks for your input. The question, once again:
Match Point session.
Dealer E. EW Vul
You are South

South	West	North	East
1	Pass	1	Pass
?

What's your rebid, holding:

6

AK832

AQ743

AT

There were a number of different views on this one, the main issues being:
a) is a rebid of 2D forcing?
b) is a rebid of 3D GAME forcing?
c) after a response of 1S and then 3NT when opener rebids 2D, what can opener expect from partner's hand?

I will now show you North's hand as it was at the time and address these questions at the same time.

KQT43

T7

J6

KQJ4

Everyone agrees that a rebid of 3D is game forcing. Do you really think the South hand is good enough to force to game? How does a singleton in partner's suit and a 17 count in our hand make this a good enough hand to want to be in game, even if partner has a minimum response? I don't think a rebid of 2D should be forcing, but with bidding like that, North will ONLY pass if he is a minimum with no heart preference. What is so wrong with playing in 2D if partner cannot muster another bid? Then, we have those who would rebid either 1NT (15-17) or 2NT with the South hand. I can't say that I'm convinced, because the shape is wrong, but at least that is better than forcing to game in my view. Though a 2NT rebid might encourage North too much.

I believe that the sensible way to bid these hands is: 1H-1S; 2D-3C; 3NT by which stage both hands have been bid properly. For South to force to game with 3D will, or at least should, result in an unmakeable slam, as should a bid of 3NT by North when South rebids a quiet 2D. Why? Because North's second bid of 3NT should surely show a balanced hand with only FOUR spades, and South can expect at least a 13 count and some useful red cards like Qx of hearts or Kxx of diamonds and bid a reasonable slam, in diamonds rather than 6NT.

What do you think? Does that make sense?