Rate Yourself 02

Here is the next ‘rating’ exercise. To make it easier for you to answer the next question, I have reproduced it here, all you have to do is reply below to this email. I have had very few responses from the first mailer so please try and answer this one even if you think you may be wrong, that is how you will learn to improve!~
With best wishes,
Vil

Let us take a further look at the problems set for you earlier:

1. You are SOUTH and playing MATCH POINTS. Dealer South, all vul. The bidding has been 1NT (12-14) from you, 2C from North (partner) 2H from you, 3D from partner. What is your bid?

J75
AQJ3
J74
QJ6

Here is what partner's hand was.

QT62
982
AKT85
7

After your 1NT opening, how SHOULD partner have bid? There is no reason why North should not use Stayman. That is because there is no response that can harm the partnership IF North is prepared to PASS any bid that South makes. If South responds 2D (no major) then North can PASS and leave South to play in 2D. If South responds 2S, great! And if South responds 2H, as our South did in the problem I posed, then North must PASS 2H and leave South to play in the known 4-3 (“Moysian”) fit.

The reason why North should use Stayman is fairly obvious now, isn't it? Not the right shape to pass 1NT and a good enough hand to look for a major suit fit and play at the TWO level. But ONLY the two level, so North's bid of 3D is definitely wrong under any circumstances, even if it does mean that North wants to play in 3D. If North had SIX diamonds and four spades (and only one or two hearts), that would be reasonable, but NOT with only five diamonds.

Now let's move on to the next scenario, where South has interpreted the bidding as forcing and has bid 3NT. West leads the four of clubs against your 3NT and East plays the nine. You win the jack and this is the situation:
West leads the four of clubs against your 3NT and East plays the nine. You win the jack and this is the situation:

North (dummy)

QT62
982
AKT85
7

South (you)

J75
AQJ3
J74
QJ6

Here is your next problem: Which card do you play now?
:
:
2. Match Points again. West opens 1C, East responds 1D, 3NT from West. North (partner) leads the TWO OF HEARTS.

This is dummy:

J76
T4
QJT743
QT

This is YOUR hand:

T94
KJ83
A2
K753

The four is called for from dummy. Which card do you play? We agreed that there is only ONE correct card to play, and that is the KING. The continuation should also be clear cut. You now know that partner has the ace, unless declarer has held up. In any case, partner's lead has struck gold and it is now imperative that you continue with the good work. You can see the TEN in dummy and you can also see that your JACK can gobble it up. While in normal circumstances you would return your own 'fourth highest' to clarify the situation for partner, this time it is more important to kill that ten in dummy. If you return your low heart, declarer will simply play low from hand and partner will have to play the ace, undoing all the good that has been done by the opening lead. I do not need to reproduce the full deal here.

Your scores:
On 1. If you suggested partner's bidding should have been to PASS 2H, score 10.
On 2. If you returned the JACK of hearts when your king held, score 10. If you returned anything else, score 0.

Now for your next rating exercise:
Go back to problem 1:
When you have landed in 3NT thanks to partner's awful bidding and your understanding (or MISunderstanding) of his bidding, and West leads the three of clubs, East producing the nine and you winning the jack, which CARD do you play next?