Question from a reader
First thing this morning I received the following email from one of last night's players:
“Question:
Board 7 from yesterday - was just wondering if I had grounds to search for slam. The bidding went: PASS - PASS - PASS - 1H - PASS - 3H - PASS - 4C - PASS - 4H - PASS - PASS - PASS. As you can see my partner (West) "lied" about her aces (she was pretty sick yesterday) so I left it in 4H and made 6H. I presume there are also other ways to search for/show singletons etc.”
I was extremely impressed to receive such a question from a new player. But before looking at the website for the said deal, I responded immediately as follows:
“Haven’t had a chance to look at last night’s hands yet but bidding slams on Wednesdays is usually not that profitable. If you bid game and make slam you will probably score very well anyway but yes there are ways to investigate slam safely but let's leave that until I see the hands.” I think the reader will be impressed with my analysis without seeing the full hands and results. This was the actual deal:
Board 7 Dealer S All Vul
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42
K62
T853
KQT3Amazingly, only TWO EW pairs were in 4H, and only one (my correspondent) made six, for 100% of the match points. Could it be that South opened a weak 2S and made bidding difficult for EW? I hardly think so because South has an absolutely awful weak 2S bid, in fact really awful given the vulnerability. One South did play in 2S, for a result that was as bad as the opening bid, minus 300. Of course had all the EW pairs bid to the 'obvious' game of 4H, -300 would have been a great result for South.
My correspondent also asked if West could open the bidding. Pretty close and if not vul I certainly would. That would have inevitably led to 6H which would require good guessing in the trump suit: after ace of hearts and a heart from West, North must play low and declarer has to guess whether to go up with the queen or play SOUTH for K10. Another reason why EW should be in 4H only.
How should the bidding go in a normal auction after P-P-P-1D? I suggest West should then bid 2C, which, being a “2 over 1” response shows 10+ HCP. East now bids 2H, which is a REVERSE and should have at least 16 HCP. Over a two level response that should be forcing to game. West now bids 3H even though she now knows that there is enough for 4H. Why? Because East has reversed, and in a game forcing situation, agreement of a suit below game level is stronger than simply jumping to game.
This is known as the principle of 'slow arrival' and is used by many more advanced players. In any case, 4H should be bid easily. It is also possible that when East opens 1D, West might bid 1H to show the hearts. I don't agree with that bid because West has a good club suit, enough points to bid them, and can continue later with a bid in hearts. This would be a 'responder's reverse'. As it happens, East has hearts also and a good enough hand to bid at least 3H, I would bid 4H.
I'm afraid that too many new players find the concept of the reverse difficult. Maybe that is because of the terminology: maybe it should be called “overdrive” or “fast forward” because such a bid is usually one that drives the partnership FORWARD instead of in reverse. Maybe I will suggest that to the perpetrators of the term! Could one say it's an OXYMORON?
