Flat set 34WED

This Wednesday (25/08/2016) produced a rather boring lot of hands. Board 15 was of some interest to me though. Let's take a look at it:
Board 15 Dealer S NS Vul

76
9875432
J82
J
QJT52
J
K7
A9852
A4
KT6
AT53
QT63
K983
AQ
Q964
K74

South, as dealer, has a perfect weak 1NT opening. Should that stop West from bidding? I would think not. Should West bid 2S or 2C (if indeed 2C is a natural overcall according to system)? There is absolutely no need to choose clubs ahead of spades, so West should just overcall 2S. Some obviously did but how it came about that one West was DOUBLED in 2S I will never know (or WANT to know, for that matter).

If West does overcall with 2S, East should probably pass, as West could be somewhat light if he or she is the sort of player (after my own heart) who does not like to leave an opponent in 1NT if he/she can help it. I am also at a loss to understand how ONE North was allowed to play in 2H. Perhaps West at that table was asleep? Surely after 1NT-PASS-2H-PASS-PASS West can NOW bid 2S if they passed the first time? And let me say, PASSING a 1NT opener with the West hand is not that bad an idea in this deal, since NS are vulnerable and defeating 1NT could be a lucrative proposition.

North of course would make the weak take-out to hearts, be it as a natural bid or a transfer via 2D. I note that only one West made ten tricks, which SHOULD be easy no matter what North leads. You might like to think about WHY West should make 4S given any lead at all. I will reveal that in my Wednesday play series for subscribers. Sign up with an email to villyn@xtra.co.nz